## The comparison test for series --- ## Telescoping series In the same way, we can show that, for any $p>0$, the series $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+p)}$ converges, and calculate its limit. --- ## Telescoping series In the same way, we can show that, for any $p>0$, the series $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+p)}$ converges, and calculate its limit. Or can we? --- ## Telescoping series In the same way, we can show that, for any $p>0$, the series $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+p)}$ converges, and calculate its limit. Or can we? Not if $p\notin\mathbb N$. For example, try to make the telescoping sum argument for $p=\frac32$. --- ## Telescoping series In the same way, we can show that, for any $p>0$, the series $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+p)}$ converges, and calculate its limit. Or can we? Not if $p\notin\mathbb N$. For example, try to make the telescoping sum argument for $p=\frac32$. You never get the cancellation, because the terms are "missing" each other. Let's try another approach. --- ## Comparison of series We know $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+1)}=\sum\_{k=1}^\infty a_k$ converges. Try $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+2)} = \sum\_{k=1}^\infty b_k$. Here $0 \leqslant b_k \leqslant a_k$ so we are summing smaller things. So $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+2)}$ must also converge. And we could replace $2$ with any real $p>1$. --- ## Comparison of series We know $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+1)}=\sum\_{k=1}^\infty a_k$ converges. Try $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+2)} = \sum\_{k=1}^\infty b_k$. Here $0 \leqslant b_k \leqslant a_k$ so we are summing smaller things. So $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+2)}$ must also converge. And we could replace $2$ with any real $p>1$. #### Theorem (Comparison test) If, for all $k\in\mathbb N$, $0 \leqslant b_k \leqslant a_k$, and $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty a_k$ converges, then so too does $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty b_k$. --- ## Comparison of series We know $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+1)}=\sum\_{k=1}^\infty a_k$ converges. Try $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+2)} = \sum\_{k=1}^\infty b_k$. Here $0 \leqslant b_k \leqslant a_k$ so we are summing smaller things. So $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+2)}$ must also converge. And we could replace $2$ with any real $p>1$. #### Theorem (Comparison test) If, for all $k\in\mathbb N$, $0 \leqslant b_k \leqslant a_k$, and $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty a_k$ converges, then so too does $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty b_k$. #### Corollary If, for all $k\in\mathbb N$, $0 \leqslant b_k \leqslant a_k$, and $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty b_k$ diverges, then so too does $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty a_k$. --- ## Comparison test #### Theorem (Comparison test) If, for all $k\in\mathbb N$, $0 \leqslant b_k \leqslant a_k$, and $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty a_k$ converges, then so too does $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty b_k$. #### Example $\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k^2}$ converges. #### Idea Want to use comparison with $\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+1)}$. But can't because $0 \leqslant \frac1{k^2} \leqslant \frac1{k(k+1)}$ is false! #### Proof $\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k^2} = \frac11 + \sum\_{k=2}^\infty \frac1{k^2} = \frac11 + \sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{(k+1)^2}$. But $0 \leqslant \frac1{(k+1)^2} \leqslant \frac1{k(k+1)}$ and $\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k(k+1)}$ converges. Therefore, by the comparison test, so too does $\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{(k+1)^2}$. Hence $\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k^2}$ converges. □ --- ## Comparison test #### Theorem (Comparison test) If, for all $k\in\mathbb N$, $0 \leqslant b_k \leqslant a_k$, and $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty a_k$ converges, then so too does $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty b_k$. #### Example $\displaystyle \sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k^t}$ converges for all $t\geq2$ and diverges for all $t\leq1$. --- ## Comparison test #### Theorem (Comparison test) If, for all $k\in\mathbb N$, $0 \leqslant b_k \leqslant a_k$, and $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty a_k$ converges, then so too does $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty b_k$. #### Example $\displaystyle \sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k^t}$ converges for all $t\geq2$ and diverges for all $t\leq1$. This follows by comparison with $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1{k^2}$ and $\displaystyle\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac1k$. We still don't know about $1